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If it is incorrect to use "it's" in the possessive, because it is not a contraction of "it is", why is it okay to use, say, "Dan's", when that is not a contraction of "Dan is"
The monster lifted its hand.
It crushed me with Daves car.
Both of these things look stupid!! Let me use the apostrophe as I will without getting up my ass!
The more dumb thing is that "the monster lifted its hand" is proper, and it tilts me too. It's even dumber when we've got a name like "James" involved, because suddenly, I need something from James' yard, but we pronounce it more like "James's," and before I can even finish asking for it, I'm already tilted enough to want to walk away from that situation.
you can write James's. it's fuzzy enough to be considered a matter of style but i think more style guides would agree with that, and like you say it matches the pronunciation
it's actually because possessive pronouns are their own thing:
i -> mine
you -> yours
he -> his
she -> hers
they -> theirs
it -> its
we don't say i's or he's, for example
the possessive pronoun its just happens to be nearly identical to the contraction "it is", the source of "it's" for the possessive being incorrect doesn't have anything to do with the contraction itself, just that possessive pronouns are their own unapostrophed words in general
Oh, that actually makes sense. A good point and well taken. I'm going to continue breaking this rule though
